a) Để P(x) chia hết cho Q(x)=2x-1 thì \(P(\dfrac{1}{2})\)=0
<=> \(P(\dfrac{1}{2})= a.(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3} -3.(\dfrac{1}{2})^{2} +a.\dfrac{1}{2}-1=0\)
<=> \(a.\dfrac{1}{8} -\dfrac{3}{4}+a.\dfrac{1}{2}-1=0\)
<=> \(\dfrac{5}{8}.a = \dfrac{7}{4}\)
<=> \(a= \dfrac{14}{5}\)
Vậy \(a=\dfrac{14}{5} thì\) P(x) chia hết cho Q(x)
Chúc bạn học tốt!!!!!😄