ta có \(A=\frac{1946}{1986}\)
\(\Rightarrow1-A=1-\frac{1946}{1986}=\frac{1986}{1986}-\frac{1946}{1986}=\frac{40}{1986}\)
\(\Rightarrow1-B=1-\frac{1968}{2008}=\frac{2008}{2008}-\frac{1968}{2008}=\frac{40}{2008}\)
Vì \(\frac{40}{1986}>\frac{40}{2008}\Rightarrow1-\frac{1946}{1986}>1-\frac{1968}{2008}\)
nên \(\Rightarrow1-A>1-B\left(1\right)\)
từ (1) <=> A<B
\(A< B\)vì \(\frac{1946}{1986}< \frac{1968}{2008}\)
vì 1 - A = 40
1986
1 - B = 40
2008
ta có : 1 - A > 1 - B
nên A < B
cho tớ hỏi A=40/1986 > B=40/2008 nên suy ra:
A > B
1/A = 1986/1946 = (1946 +40)/1946 = 1 + 40/1946
1/B = 2008/1968 = (1968 +40)/1968 = 1 + 40/1968
Do 40/1946 > 40/1968
=> 1/A > 1/B
=> A < B