Theo đề \(\Rightarrow\left(\frac{301-x}{103}+1\right)+\left(\frac{302-x}{102}+1\right)=\left(\frac{303-x}{101}+1\right)+\left(\frac{304-x}{100}+1\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{301-x}{103}+1\right)+\left(\frac{302-x}{102}+1\right)-\left(\frac{303-x}{101}+1\right)-\left(\frac{304-x}{100}+1\right)=0\)
Sau khi đã quy đồng các phân số với các số 1, ta có :
\(\frac{301-x+103}{103}+\frac{302-x+102}{102}-\frac{303-x+101}{101}-\frac{304-x+100}{100}=0\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{404-x}{103}+\frac{404-x}{102}-\frac{404-x}{101}-\frac{404-x}{100}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(404-x\right)\times\frac{1}{103}+\left(404-x\right)\times\frac{1}{102}-\left(404-x\right)\times\frac{1}{101}-\left(404-x\right)\times\frac{1}{100}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(404-x\right)\times\left(\frac{1}{103}+\frac{1}{102}-\frac{1}{101}-\frac{1}{100}\right)=0\)
Vì \(\frac{1}{103}< \frac{1}{102}< \frac{1}{101}< \frac{1}{100}\Rightarrow\frac{1}{103}+\frac{1}{102}-\frac{1}{101}-\frac{1}{100}\ne0\)
Để \(\left(404-x\right)\times\left(\frac{1}{103}+\frac{1}{102}-\frac{1}{101}-\frac{1}{100}\right)=0\)thì \(404-x=0\)
\(404-x=0\)
\(\Rightarrow x=404\)
Vậy x=404
Phương trình \(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{301-x}{103}+1\right)+\left(\frac{302-x}{102}+1\right)=\left(\frac{303-x}{101}+1\right)+\left(\frac{304-x}{100}+1\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{404-x}{103}+\frac{404-x}{102}=\frac{404-x}{101}+\frac{404-x}{100}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(404-x\right)\left(\frac{1}{103}+\frac{1}{102}-\frac{1}{101}-\frac{1}{100}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow404-x=0\)vì \(\left(\frac{1}{103}+\frac{1}{102}-\frac{1}{101}-\frac{1}{100}\right)\ne0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x=404\)
Vậy phương trình có nghiệm x=404
