Đặt \(6\left(x-\frac{1}{y}\right)=3\left(y-\frac{1}{z}\right)=2\left(z-\frac{1}{x}\right)=xyz-\frac{1}{xyz}=k\) thì ta suy ra được :
\(x-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{k}{6}\); \(y-\frac{1}{z}=\frac{k}{3}\) ; \(z-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{k}{2}\)
Vậy ta có \(\left(x-\frac{1}{y}\right)\left(y-\frac{1}{z}\right)\left(z-\frac{1}{x}\right)=\frac{k^3}{36}\Rightarrow\left(xyz-\frac{1}{xyz}\right)-\left(x-\frac{1}{y}\right)-\left(y-\frac{1}{z}\right)-\left(z-\frac{1}{x}\right)=\frac{k^3}{36}\)
Mà \(x-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{k}{6};y-\frac{1}{z}=\frac{k}{3};z-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{k}{2};xyz-\frac{1}{xyz}=k\)
\(\Rightarrow k-\frac{k}{6}-\frac{k}{3}-\frac{k}{2}=\frac{k^3}{36}\Rightarrow k=0\)
Vậy ta suy ra được\(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}xy=1\\yz=1\\zx=1\\xyz=1\end{matrix}\right.\) nên ta có 4 cặp số nguyên: (1;1;1);(-1;-1;1);(1;-1;-1);(-1;1;-1).
